Compound Interest: Concepts & Shortcuts
Scenario-Based Learning for Competitive Exams
By Wisdom Helps Mahesh Sir
Given: Principal ($P$) = ₹2,000, Amount ($A$) = ₹2,420, Rate ($R$) = 10% p.a.
Using the formula: $A = P\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^n$
$$\Rightarrow 2420 = 2000\left(1 + \frac{10}{100}\right)^n$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{2420}{2000} = (1.1)^n \Rightarrow \frac{121}{100} = (1.1)^n$$ $$\Rightarrow 1.21 = (1.1)^n$$ Since $(1.1)^2 = 1.21$, comparing both sides gives n = 2 years.
✅ Correct Option: (C)
Given: Principal ($P$) = ₹1,000, Amount ($A$) = ₹1,331, Rate ($R$) = 10% p.a.
Using the formula: $A = P\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^n$
$$\Rightarrow 1331 = 1000\left(1 + \frac{10}{100}\right)^n$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{1331}{1000} = (1.1)^n \Rightarrow 1.331 = (1.1)^n$$ Since $(1.1)^3 = 1.331$, comparing the exponents gives n = 3 years.
✅ Correct Option: (B)
Given: Amount ($A$) = ₹270.40, Rate ($R$) = 4% p.a., Time ($n$) = 2 years.
Using the standard formula: $A = P\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^n$
$$\Rightarrow 270.40 = P\left(1 + \frac{4}{100}\right)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow 270.40 = P(1.04)^2 \Rightarrow 270.40 = P \times 1.0816$$ $$\Rightarrow P = \frac{270.40}{1.0816} = \mathbf{₹250}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (C)
In compound interest, the amount at the end of the 2nd year acts as the principal for the 3rd year.
Interest earned in the 3rd year = $\text{Amount after 3 years} - \text{Amount after 2 years}$
$$\Rightarrow \text{Interest} = 10648 - 9680 = ₹968$$ Now, calculate the rate of interest on the 2nd year's amount:
$$\text{Rate } (R) = \frac{\text{Interest}}{\text{Principal for that year}} \times 100$$ $$R = \frac{968}{9680} \times 100 = \mathbf{10\%}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (B)
Given: Initial value ($P$) = ₹2,304, Final value ($A$) = ₹2,500, Time ($n$) = 2 years.
$$A = P\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^2 \Rightarrow \frac{2500}{2304} = \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^2$$ Taking square root on both sides:
$$\sqrt{\frac{2500}{2304}} = 1 + \frac{R}{100} \Rightarrow \frac{50}{48} = 1 + \frac{R}{100}$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{R}{100} = \frac{50}{48} - 1 = \frac{2}{48} = \frac{1}{24}$$ $$\Rightarrow R = \frac{100}{24} = \frac{25}{6} = \mathbf{4 \frac{1}{6}\%}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (C)
Given: Target Amount ($A$) = ₹1,352, Rate ($R$) = 4% p.a., Time ($n$) = 2 years.
$$A = P\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^n \Rightarrow 1352 = P(1.04)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow 1352 = P \times 1.0816$$ $$\Rightarrow P = \frac{1352}{1.0816} = \mathbf{₹1250}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (D)
Method 1: Effective Interest Rate
Effective Simple Interest (SI) rate for 2 years = $4\% + 4\% = 8\%$
Effective Compound Interest (CI) rate for 2 years = $4 + 4 + \frac{4 \times 4}{100} = 8.16\%$
Given that the CI value is ₹102:
$$\Rightarrow 8.16\% \text{ of Principal} = 102$$ $$\Rightarrow \text{Principal} = \frac{102}{8.16} \times 100 = ₹1250$$ Now, calculate SI on ₹1,250 for 2 years at 4%:
$$\text{SI} = \frac{1250 \times 4 \times 2}{100} = \mathbf{₹100}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (D)
Using the direct shortcut formula for the difference between CI and SI for 2 years:
$$\text{Difference } (D) = P\left(\frac{R}{100}\right)^2$$ Given: $D = ₹4$, $R = 4\%$
$$\Rightarrow 4 = P\left(\frac{4}{100}\right)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow 4 = P \times \frac{16}{10000}$$ $$\Rightarrow P = \frac{4 \times 10000}{16} = \frac{40000}{16} = \mathbf{₹2500}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (A)
Using the standard 2-year difference formula:
$$\text{Difference } (D) = P\left(\frac{R}{100}\right)^2$$ Given: $D = ₹768$, $R = 8\%$
$$\Rightarrow 768 = P\left(\frac{8}{100}\right)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow 768 = P \times \frac{64}{10000}$$ $$\Rightarrow P = \frac{768 \times 10000}{64}$$ Since $\frac{768}{64} = 12$, we get:
$$\Rightarrow P = 12 \times 10000 = \mathbf{₹1,20,000}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (C)
Using the shortcut formula for the difference between CI and SI for exactly 3 years:
$$\text{Difference } (D) = P\left(\frac{R}{100}\right)^2 \times \left(\frac{300 + R}{100}\right)$$ Given: $D = ₹15.25$, $R = 5\%$
$$\Rightarrow 15.25 = P\left(\frac{5}{100}\right)^2 \times \left(\frac{300 + 5}{100}\right)$$ $$\Rightarrow 15.25 = P\left(\frac{1}{400}\right) \times \left(\frac{305}{100}\right)$$ $$\Rightarrow 15.25 = P \times \frac{305}{40000}$$ $$\Rightarrow P = \frac{15.25 \times 40000}{305} = \frac{610000}{305} = \mathbf{₹2,000}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (A)
Let the initial value be $1$.
It becomes 2 times ($2^1$) in 5 years.
We need it to become 8 times, which can be written in powers of 2 as $8 = 2^3$.
Shortcut Formula: If a sum becomes $x^1$ times in $T$ years, it becomes $x^m$ times in $T \times m$ years.
Here, $x = 2$, $T = 5$ years, and $m = 3$.
$$\text{Total Time} = 5 \times 3 = \mathbf{15\text{ years}}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (B)
The index becomes 2 times ($2^1$) its value in 4 years.
We want to find out when it quadruples, which means becoming 4 times ($4 = 2^2$) its value.
Using the shortcut rule: Multiply the initial time cycle by the power exponent.
$$\text{Required Time} = \text{Initial Time } (T) \times \text{Power component } (m)$$ $$\text{Required Time} = 4 \times 2 = \mathbf{8\text{ years}}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (C)
Rate ($R$) = 4% = $\frac{4}{100} = \frac{1}{25}$. This means a principal unit of 25 grows to a maturity unit of 26 ($25+1$) in a year.
Let the equal annual installment be $x$.
The formula for the present value of 2 installments under CI is:
$$\text{Principal } (P) = \frac{x}{\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^1} + \frac{x}{\left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^2}$$ $$\Rightarrow 2550 = \frac{x}{\frac{26}{25}} + \frac{x}{\left(\frac{26}{25}\right)^2}$$ $$\Rightarrow 2550 = \frac{25x}{26} + \frac{625x}{676}$$ Take the LCM of 26 and 676, which is 676:
$$\Rightarrow 2550 = \frac{25 \times 26x + 625x}{676}$$ $$\Rightarrow 2550 = \frac{650x + 625x}{676} \Rightarrow 2550 = \frac{1275x}{676}$$ $$\Rightarrow x = \frac{2550 \times 676}{1275} = 2 \times 676 = \mathbf{₹1352}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (A)
Using the 2-year difference formula for simple and compound interest:
$$\text{Difference } (D) = P\left(\frac{R}{100}\right)^2$$ Given: $D = ₹464$, $R = 10\%$
$$\Rightarrow 464 = P\left(\frac{10}{100}\right)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow 464 = P\left(\frac{1}{10}\right)^2 \Rightarrow 464 = P \times \frac{1}{100}$$ $$\Rightarrow P = 464 \times 100 = \mathbf{₹46,400}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (A)
When interest is compounded quarterly:
* New Rate ($R'$) = $\frac{\text{Annual Rate}}{4} = \frac{20\%}{4} = 5\% \text{ per quarter}$
* Time periods ($n$) = $\frac{9 \text{ months}}{3 \text{ months}} = 3 \text{ quarters}$
Now apply the amount formula with these updated variables:
$$A = P\left(1 + \frac{R'}{100}\right)^n \Rightarrow A = 16000\left(1 + \frac{5}{100}\right)^3$$ $$\Rightarrow A = 16000 \times (1.05)^3 = 16000 \times 1.157625 = ₹18,522$$ Now, extract the Compound Interest (CI):
$$\text{CI} = \text{Amount } (A) - \text{Principal } (P)$$ $$\text{CI} = 18522 - 16000 = \mathbf{₹2522}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (C)
Given: Amount ($A$) = ₹5,618, Rate ($R$) = 6% p.a., Time ($T$) = 2 years.
$$A = P \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right)^T \Rightarrow 5618 = P \left(1 + \frac{6}{100}\right)^2$$ $$\Rightarrow 5618 = P (1.06)^2 \Rightarrow 5618 = P \times 1.1236$$ $$\Rightarrow P = \frac{5618}{1.1236} = \mathbf{₹5000}$$ ✅ Correct Option: (B)
When the rate is the same, final maturity amounts become equal, and the compounding time differs by exactly 1 year:
Step 1: Find the share ratio formula
$$\text{Ratio of investments (Lower Time : Higher Time)} = \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right) : 1$$ $$= \left(1 + \frac{8}{100}\right) : 1 = 1.08 : 1 = 108 : 100 = 27 : 25$$ Since Raj's money stays in the bank for less time (14 years) but ends up equal to Varun's (15 years), Raj must have been given the larger initial share.
Step 2: Calculate the Shares
Total parts = $27 + 25 = 52\text{ units}$.
$$\text{Value of 52 units} = ₹1612 \Rightarrow 1\text{ unit} = \frac{1612}{52} = ₹31$$ $$\text{Raj's Share (27 units)} = 27 \times 31 = \mathbf{₹837}$$ $$\text{Varun's Share (25 units)} = 25 \times 31 = ₹775$$ ✅ Correct Option: (B)
⚡ Ultra Shortcut Method (Exam Trick)
Instead of writing separate long equations for both interests, look directly at the extra principal amount that creates the extra interest output.
Step 1: Find the difference in invested principals
$$\text{Difference in P } (\Delta P) = 10200 - 5400 = ₹4800$$
Step 2: Apply the simple interest difference formula
$$\text{Extra Interest} = \frac{\Delta P \times \text{Rate} \times \text{Time}}{100}$$
$$720 = \frac{4800 \times R \times 4}{100}$$
$$720 = 192 \times R \Rightarrow R = \frac{720}{192} = \mathbf{3.75\%}$$
✅ Correct Option: 1
📌 Given Values:
* Target maturity age = 22 years old
* Kiran’s current age = 11 $\Rightarrow$ Time inside bank ($n_1$) = $22 - 11 = 11\text{ years}$
* Tushar’s current age = 12 $\Rightarrow$ Time inside bank ($n_2$) = $22 - 12 = 10\text{ years}$
* Interest Rate ($R$) = 8% p.a. | Combined principal pool = ₹24,700
📘 Standard Algebraic Method:
Let Kiran's initial assignment share be $x$. Tushar's share becomes $(24700 - x)$.
$$x\left(1 + \frac{8}{100}\right)^{11} = (24700 - x)\left(1 + \frac{8}{100}\right)^{10}$$
Divide both paths by $\left(1.08\right)^{10}$:
$$x(1.08)^1 = 24700 - x \Rightarrow 1.08x + x = 24700$$
$$2.08x = 24700 \Rightarrow x = \frac{24700}{2.08} = 11875\text{ (Kiran's Share)}$$
$$\text{Tushar's Share} = 24700 - 11875 = \mathbf{12825}$$
⚡ Fast Shortcut Trick:
The time gap between them is exactly 1 year ($11 - 10$). The grandson with less investment time (Tushar) must receive a larger base share to catch up to the same amount.
$$\text{Ratio (Kiran : Tushar)} = 1 : \left(1 + \frac{R}{100}\right) = 1 : 1.08 = 100 : 108$$
$$\text{Total parts} = 100 + 108 = 208\text{ units}$$
$$\text{Value of 1 part} = \frac{24700}{208} = 118.75$$
$$\text{Tushar's share} = 108 \times 118.75 = \mathbf{12825}$$
✅ Correct Option: B
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